Based on Ephesians 2:11, are non-Jewish Believers in Israel’s Messiah to be regarded as “former Gentiles”? Or, might it be that too many in the independent Hebrew/Hebraic Roots movement have not been reading Scripture carefully enough? And, is it true that some non-Jews are offended by the term “Gentile”? How do we carefully sort through some of these factors?
FAQ – Gentile, Term: http://messianicapologetics.net/archives/11430
Ephesians for the Practical Messianic: http://messianicapologetics.net/archives/8786
Apostolic Scriptures Practical Messianic Edition: http://messianicapologetics.net/archives/8804